January 2026 Important Questions – Part 4 (Q151–220)

Q151.

The India–Middle East–Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) aims to:
A. Promote military alliance
B. Diversify trade routes and reduce logistics time
C. Replace Suez Canal
D. Establish new currency bloc
Answer: B

Q152.

The Global Economic Prospects report is published by:
A. IMF
B. World Bank
C. OECD
D. WTO
Answer: B

Q153.

World Bank revised India’s FY26 growth forecast to approximately:
A. 6.8%
B. 7.0%
C. 7.2%
D. 7.4%
Answer: C

Q154.

India’s fish production doubled from FY14 to FY25 to reach approximately:
A. 150 lakh tonnes
B. 175 lakh tonnes
C. 190 lakh tonnes
D. 197.75 lakh tonnes
Answer: D

Q155.

India is set to join Pax Silica, a US-led initiative focused on:
A. Oil exports
B. Secure technology supply chains
C. Agricultural trade
D. Space tourism
Answer: B

Q156.

The National Sports Governance Rules, 2026 mandate:
A. Lifetime tenure for officials
B. Women representation and independent election panels
C. Foreign oversight
D. Abolition of federations
Answer: B

Q157.

The Australia Group is primarily an informal export control regime against proliferation of:
A. Nuclear weapons
B. Chemical and biological weapons
C. Ballistic missiles
D. Cyber weapons
Answer: B

Q158.

The Supreme Court judgment in Nabam Rebia (2016) reaffirmed that Governors must act on:
A. Personal discretion
B. Judicial direction
C. Aid and advice of Council of Ministers
D. President’s direction
Answer: C

Q159.

The UN High Seas Treaty became operational after ratification by more than:
A. 50 countries
B. 60 countries
C. 70 countries
D. 80 countries
Answer: D

Q160.

The Renewable Energy and Jobs – Annual Review 2025 highlighted India’s top ranking in:
A. Wind employment
B. Solar PV employment
C. Nuclear employment
D. Coal employment
Answer: B

Q161.

The NPS Vatsalya Scheme promotes:
A. Corporate pensions
B. Early financial literacy and long-term savings for children
C. Pension privatization
D. Retirement age increase
Answer: B

Q162.

Food prices entered deflation for the first time since:
A. 2010
B. 2012
C. 2014
D. 2016
Answer: C

Q163.

The symbolic gifting of a Nobel Peace Prize medal raised debate because Nobel honours are:
A. Transferable legally
B. Non-transferable legally
C. Tradable
D. Auctionable
Answer: B

Q164.

Mission Mausam strengthened India’s:
A. Defence satellites
B. Urban weather monitoring systems
C. Oil reserves
D. Water pipelines
Answer: B

Q165.

The Supreme Court directed mandatory reporting of student suicides by:
A. District collectors
B. Police stations
C. Higher educational institutions
D. Parents
Answer: C

Q166.

India’s defence production reached approximately:
A. ₹1.25 lakh crore
B. ₹1.40 lakh crore
C. ₹1.51 lakh crore
D. ₹1.75 lakh crore
Answer: C

Q167.

The European Union considered invoking its Anti-Coercion Instrument to counter:
A. Military aggression
B. Economic pressure
C. Cyber warfare
D. Climate violations
Answer: B

Q168.

Hope Island controversy relates to proposal for:
A. Nuclear power plant
B. Satellite launch facility
C. Oil refinery
D. Deep-sea mining
Answer: B

Q169.

Under the India–UAE partnership, bilateral trade target by 2032 is over:
A. $150 billion
B. $175 billion
C. $200 billion
D. $250 billion
Answer: C

Q170.

Digital and Data Embassies concept ensures:
A. Currency convertibility
B. Data sovereignty and cyber resilience
C. Free trade
D. Visa-free travel
Answer: B

Q171.

China’s demographic winter is characterized by:
A. High fertility
B. Youth surge
C. Ageing population and low fertility
D. Migration boom
Answer: C

Q172.

Environmental Protection Fund Rules, 2026 emphasize:
A. Carbon trading
B. Transparent audited use of pollution penalties
C. Oil exploration
D. Mining expansion
Answer: B

Q173.

The 99-year lease of Diego Garcia ensures continuity of:
A. Tourism
B. UK–US military operations
C. Fishing rights
D. Oil drilling
Answer: B

Q174.

Neo-royalism in global politics refers to:
A. Return of monarchies
B. Personalised concentration of executive power
C. Federal expansion
D. Parliamentary supremacy
Answer: B

Q175.

The Carney Doctrine proposed at WEF 2026 advocates:
A. Rigid bloc politics
B. Middle-power flexible multilateralism
C. Unilateral dominance
D. Protectionism
Answer: B

Q176.

Pixxel signed agreement with IN-SPACe to build:
A. Nuclear satellite
B. Earth Observation constellation
C. Human space capsule
D. Lunar rover
Answer: B

Q177.

Nature-negative finance globally is nearly how many times larger than nature-positive finance?
A. 10 times
B. 15 times
C. 20 times
D. 30 times
Answer: D

Q178.

The Military Quantum Mission supports integration of quantum technology into:
A. Agriculture
B. Defence architecture
C. Tourism
D. Fisheries
Answer: B

Q179.

The Commission for Air Quality Management found winter pollution intensified mainly due to:
A. Sudden emission spikes
B. Atmospheric stagnation
C. Earthquakes
D. Flooding
Answer: B

Q180.

The G4 proposal addresses under-representation of:
A. Europe
B. Global South
C. NATO
D. OECD
Answer: B

Q181.

The RBI report described India as being at a demographic:
A. Collapse
B. Dividend turning point
C. Winter
D. Plateau
Answer: B

Q182.

India’s working-age population window is considered:
A. Permanent
B. Expanding infinitely
C. Narrow but critical
D. Declining rapidly
Answer: C

Q183.

The circular economy report warned India’s recycling rate is approximately:
A. 20%
B. 15%
C. 12%
D. 10%
Answer: D

Q184.

The Fourth Industrial Revolution Centre in India is located in:
A. Gujarat
B. Maharashtra
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Karnataka
Answer: C

Q185.

ACASA-India platform provides location-specific advisories for:
A. Students
B. Farmers
C. Investors
D. Tourists
Answer: B

Q186.

The Arctic greening phenomenon refers to:
A. Ice thickening
B. Increase in tundra vegetation
C. Coral bleaching
D. Glacier uplift
Answer: B

Q187.

Atlantification refers to:
A. Cooling of Arctic
B. Increased Atlantic water inflow into Arctic
C. NATO expansion
D. Polar ice growth
Answer: B

Q188.

The Greenwald limit relates to:
A. Carbon credits
B. Fusion plasma density threshold
C. Ozone depletion
D. Sea-level rise
Answer: B

Q189.

India’s renewable capacity target achievement strengthened its role in:
A. Coal alliance
B. Climate leadership
C. Oil cartel
D. Military bloc
Answer: B

Q190.

The SWAMIH fund supports:
A. Defence procurement
B. Stalled housing projects
C. Pension reform
D. Nuclear reactors
Answer: B

Q191.

The PNGRB–Germany MoU focuses on cooperation in:
A. Coal mining
B. Hydrogen regulation
C. Oil pipelines
D. Wind turbines
Answer: B

Q192.

The NIRANTAR platform enhances coordination in:
A. Banking audits
B. Environmental governance
C. Defence exports
D. Tourism
Answer: B

Q193.

The Gita Mittal Committee relates to:
A. Judicial reforms
B. Humanitarian relief in Manipur
C. Pension policy
D. Defence modernization
Answer: B

Q194.

India–Russia agreement includes manufacturing of which aircraft in India?
A. Sukhoi-30
B. MiG-29
C. SJ-100 regional aircraft
D. Tejas Mk-II
Answer: C

Q195.

India’s services sector grew by approximately:
A. 7%
B. 8%
C. 9.1%
D. 10%
Answer: C

Q196.

General government debt sustainability improved by reducing debt-to-GDP by about:
A. 5%
B. 6%
C. 7.1%
D. 8%
Answer: C

Q197.

The Mpemba Effect was explained using:
A. Drone experiments
B. Satellite data
C. Supercomputer simulations
D. Field surveys
Answer: C

Q198.

The UN Advisory Board on Disarmament Matters Chairmanship (2026–27) was held by:
A. USA diplomat
B. UK diplomat
C. Indian diplomat
D. French diplomat
Answer: C

Q199.

Section 12(1)(c) of RTE Act mandates reservation for:
A. SC/ST only
B. Girl child only
C. EWS and disadvantaged children
D. Minority institutions
Answer: C

Q200.

India’s January 2026 developments reflected convergence of:
A. Only economic reforms
B. Only defence modernisation
C. Governance reform, strategic ambition, climate leadership and technology advancement
D. Agricultural subsidies only
Answer: C

Q201.

The processing time for India’s e-B-4 visa is approximately:
A. 15–20 days
B. 30–35 days
C. 45–50 days
D. 60–70 days
Answer: C

Q202.

The e-B-4 visa allows entry specifically for:
A. General employment
B. Activity-specific manufacturing operations
C. Permanent settlement
D. Tourism and trade fairs
Answer: B

Q203.

Under the Draft Pesticides Management Bill, poisoning surveillance is introduced to strengthen:
A. Trade exports
B. Public health monitoring
C. Fertiliser subsidy
D. Import control
Answer: B

Q204.

The Central Pesticides Board proposed under the Bill aims to:
A. Promote exports
B. Strengthen scientific regulatory oversight
C. Control seed prices
D. Expand organic farming
Answer: B

Q205.

Under afforestation relaxation norms, Assisted Natural Regeneration is now recognized as:
A. Mining activity
B. Forestry activity
C. Commercial land use
D. Infrastructure project
Answer: B

Q206.

The Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025 operationalize which Act?
A. IT Act 2000
B. Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023
C. Aadhaar Act
D. RTI Act
Answer: B

Q207.

The Lok Sabha Speaker’s authority to constitute an Inquiry Committee reinforces:
A. Executive supremacy
B. Bicameral independence
C. Judicial review
D. Presidential control
Answer: B

Q208.

The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 lays down procedure for removal of judges under:
A. Article 14
B. Article 32
C. Articles 124(4) and 218
D. Article 356
Answer: C

Q209.

The NITI–TERI circular economy report highlighted low recovery of critical minerals such as:
A. Iron and coal
B. Lithium, cobalt and nickel
C. Gold and silver
D. Copper and zinc
Answer: B

Q210.

India’s recycling rate for e-waste is approximately:
A. 15%
B. 12%
C. 10%
D. 8%
Answer: C

Q211.

The term “weaponisation of economic tools” refers to use of:
A. Carbon credits
B. Sanctions and tariffs for strategic pressure
C. Digital currencies
D. Military bases
Answer: B

Q212.

The “Donroe Doctrine” is associated with:
A. Climate diplomacy
B. Unilateral regional dominance approach
C. Renewable cooperation
D. Arctic governance
Answer: B

Q213.

The Arctic Council serves primarily as a platform for:
A. Military coordination
B. Climate and regional governance cooperation
C. Oil cartel management
D. Missile defence
Answer: B

Q214.

Secondary particulate matter is formed primarily through:
A. Direct dust emissions
B. Chemical reactions in atmosphere
C. Forest fires only
D. Industrial accidents
Answer: B

Q215.

The Greenhouse Gas Emission Intensity Target Amendment Rules apply penalties for:
A. Overproduction
B. Non-compliance with reduction targets
C. Export surplus
D. Land acquisition
Answer: B

Q216.

The Responsible Nations Index evaluates countries beyond GDP based on:
A. Military capability
B. Ethical governance and global responsibility
C. Oil reserves
D. Population size
Answer: B

Q217.

The ACASA-India digital climate platform marks completion of how many years of NICRA?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. 20
Answer: C

Q218.

The RBI State Finances Report warns youthful states risk a “demographic disaster” if:
A. Population declines
B. Education and skilling lag behind growth
C. Immigration increases
D. Urbanization slows
Answer: B

Q219.

The UNEP State of Finance for Nature report highlighted harmful finance at approximately:
A. $6 trillion
B. $7.3 trillion
C. $8 trillion
D. $9 trillion
Answer: B

Q220.

India’s January 2026 policy landscape reflects convergence of governance reform, technological advancement, climate leadership, and:
A. Agricultural isolation
B. Strategic autonomy
C. Monetary tightening
D. Trade protectionism
Answer: B