January 2026 Important Questions – Part 2 (Q51–100)

Q51.

According to RBI State Finances 2025–26 report, India’s median age is approximately:
A. 25 years
B. 27 years
C. 28 years
D. 30 years
Answer: C

Q52.

Ageing states like Kerala and Tamil Nadu face rising fiscal pressure mainly due to:
A. Defence spending
B. Pension expenditure
C. Import bills
D. Corporate tax cuts
Answer: B

Q53.

Pension expenditure accounts for nearly what share of social sector spending in ageing states?
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 30%
D. 40%
Answer: C

Q54.

India’s consolidated fiscal deficit of states rose to approximately:
A. 2.8% of GDP
B. 3.0% of GDP
C. 3.2% of GDP
D. 3.5% of GDP
Answer: C

Q55.

India generates approximately how much e-waste annually?
A. 4 MMT
B. 5 MMT
C. 6.19 MMT
D. 8 MMT
Answer: C

Q56.

India’s e-waste is projected to rise to about how much by 2030?
A. 10 MMT
B. 12 MMT
C. 14 MMT
D. 16 MMT
Answer: C

Q57.

Nearly what percentage of India’s e-waste is handled by the informal sector?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 78%
Answer: D

Q58.

FDI inflows into India surged by approximately what percentage in 2025?
A. 60%
B. 65%
C. 70%
D. 73%
Answer: D

Q59.

FDI inflows reached approximately:
A. $40 billion
B. $45 billion
C. $47 billion
D. $50 billion
Answer: C

Q60.

The surge in FDI inflows was largely driven by:
A. Oil exports
B. China+1 supply chain diversification
C. Tourism revival
D. Cryptocurrency inflows
Answer: B

Q61.

India handled approximately how many cyber incidents in 2025?
A. 10 lakh
B. 15 lakh
C. 20 lakh
D. 30 lakh
Answer: D

Q62.

Cyber Swachhta Kendra focuses on:
A. Data privacy legislation
B. Malware detection and cyber hygiene
C. AI governance
D. Banking fraud audits
Answer: B

Q63.

Under Article 124(4) of the Constitution, a Supreme Court judge can be removed on grounds of:
A. Inefficiency
B. Proven misbehaviour or incapacity
C. Political disagreement
D. Administrative error
Answer: B

Q64.

Section 17A of the Prevention of Corruption Act requires:
A. Bail before trial
B. Prior sanction before investigating public servants
C. Lokpal approval for arrest
D. Special fast-track courts
Answer: B

Q65.

Justice B.V. Nagarathna struck down Section 17A citing violation of:
A. Article 19
B. Article 21
C. Article 14
D. Article 32
Answer: C

Q66.

Section 12(1)(c) of the RTE Act mandates:
A. Free textbooks
B. 25% reservation for EWS in private unaided schools
C. Digital classrooms
D. Teacher recruitment reforms
Answer: B

Q67.

The UN High Seas Treaty rests on how many pillars?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Answer: C

Q68.

One of the pillars of the BBNJ Agreement includes:
A. Maritime military cooperation
B. Marine protected areas
C. Deep-sea mining promotion
D. Oil exploration
Answer: B

Q69.

India’s renewable energy jobs reached approximately:
A. 1 million
B. 1.2 million
C. 1.3 million
D. 1.5 million
Answer: C

Q70.

India’s passport ranking improved to which position in 2026?
A. 75
B. 78
C. 80
D. 82
Answer: C

Q71.

The Responsible Nations Index ranked India at:
A. 12th
B. 14th
C. 16th
D. 18th
Answer: C

Q72.

Nature-negative finance globally stood at approximately:
A. $6 trillion
B. $7 trillion
C. $7.3 trillion
D. $8 trillion
Answer: C

Q73.

Nature-positive investments globally were approximately:
A. $150 billion
B. $180 billion
C. $200 billion
D. $220 billion
Answer: D

Q74.

Annual investment required for Nature-based Solutions by 2030 is estimated at:
A. $500 billion
B. $550 billion
C. $571 billion
D. $600 billion
Answer: C

Q75.

MISHTI scheme primarily focuses on:
A. Coral reef restoration
B. Mangrove restoration
C. Glacier conservation
D. Wetland drainage
Answer: B

Q76.

Amrit Dharohar scheme relates to conservation of:
A. Tiger reserves
B. Ramsar wetlands
C. Mangrove forests
D. River dolphins
Answer: B

Q77.

The G4 proposal suggests expanding the UNSC to approximately how many total members?
A. 21–22
B. 23–24
C. 25–26
D. 28–30
Answer: C

Q78.

The polar vortex shift allowed Arctic air to spill into:
A. South Asia
B. Africa
C. United States
D. Australia
Answer: C

Q79.

Arctic amplification reduces the temperature gradient between:
A. Tropics and equator
B. Poles and mid-latitudes
C. Oceans and land
D. Hemispheres
Answer: B

Q80.

India’s AI strategy emphasizes:
A. Only military AI
B. Large GPU imports
C. Citizen-centric and ethical AI
D. Unregulated AI expansion
Answer: C

Q81.

India’s AI infrastructure investment rollout is approximately:
A. $50 billion
B. $60 billion
C. $70 billion
D. $80 billion
Answer: C

Q82.

Smaller domain-specific AI models handle approximately what percentage of workloads?
A. 70%
B. 80%
C. 90%
D. 95%
Answer: D

Q83.

Param Shakti was built using indigenous servers developed by:
A. ISRO
B. DRDO
C. C-DAC
D. BEL
Answer: C

Q84.

India’s defence exports expanded to:
A. 75 countries
B. 90 countries
C. 100+ countries
D. 120 countries
Answer: C

Q85.

Coking coal is critical for:
A. Solar panels
B. Steel production
C. Cement production
D. Aluminium smelting
Answer: B

Q86.

The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 balances privacy with:
A. Military secrecy
B. Ease of compliance
C. Export control
D. Tariff reform
Answer: B

Q87.

The NPS Vatsalya Scheme aims to expand pension coverage to:
A. Senior citizens
B. Children
C. Informal workers
D. Women entrepreneurs
Answer: B

Q88.

Startup India completed how many years in January 2026?
A. 5 years
B. 8 years
C. 10 years
D. 12 years
Answer: C

Q89.

India’s startup ecosystem valuation crossed approximately:
A. $250 billion
B. $300 billion
C. $350 billion
D. $400 billion
Answer: C

Q90.

India became global leader in IPOs in terms of:
A. Total value
B. Number of IPOs
C. Foreign listings
D. Profit margin
Answer: B

Q91.

Market capitalisation-to-GDP ratio crossed:
A. 110%
B. 120%
C. 130%
D. 140%
Answer: C

Q92.

India’s fish production rose to approximately:
A. 150 lakh tonnes
B. 175 lakh tonnes
C. 190 lakh tonnes
D. 197.75 lakh tonnes
Answer: D

Q93.

The India–EU Free Trade Agreement grants access to approximately what percentage of tariff lines?
A. 90%
B. 93%
C. 95%
D. 97%
Answer: D

Q94.

Article 18 of the Constitution ensures that civilian awards are:
A. Hereditary
B. Transferable
C. Non-titular
D. Monetary only
Answer: C

Q95.

The Commission for Air Quality Management highlighted that secondary PM forms mainly due to:
A. Direct emissions
B. Chemical atmospheric reactions
C. Industrial shutdown
D. Sudden emission spikes
Answer: B

Q96.

Greenwald limit is associated with:
A. Ozone depletion
B. Fusion plasma density
C. Carbon trading
D. Glacier melt
Answer: B

Q97.

India’s forex reserves stood at approximately:
A. $650 billion
B. $680 billion
C. $701.4 billion
D. $750 billion
Answer: C

Q98.

India remained the world’s largest remittance recipient at approximately:
A. $120 billion
B. $130 billion
C. $135.4 billion
D. $150 billion
Answer: C

Q99.

Solid Waste Management Rules 2026 become effective from:
A. January 2026
B. April 1, 2026
C. July 2026
D. October 2026
Answer: B

Q100.

The Environmental Protection Fund Rules, 2026 ensure:
A. Carbon trading
B. Transparent and audited use of pollution penalties
C. Mining liberalisation
D. Land acquisition reform
Answer: B