Q1.
India achieved a milestone in glaucoma treatment using which advanced technique at an Army Hospital in New Delhi?
A. Robotic Retinal Mapping
B. 3D Flex Aqueous Angiography with iStent implantation
C. Optical Coherence Laser Ablation
D. Corneal Cross-Linking
Answer: B
Q2.
The new glaucoma procedure enables real-time visualization of:
A. Retina thickness
B. Optic nerve signals
C. Aqueous humour drainage pathways
D. Corneal curvature
Answer: C
Q3.
The technique combining 3D imaging with iStent is part of:
A. LASIK Surgery
B. Retinal Revascularisation
C. Minimally Invasive Glaucoma Surgery (MIGS)
D. Corneal Grafting
Answer: C
Q4.
Bulgaria officially adopted which currency, becoming the 21st member of the Eurozone?
A. Pound
B. Dollar
C. Euro
D. Dinar
Answer: C
Q5.
Sofia is the capital of:
A. Romania
B. Bulgaria
C. Serbia
D. North Macedonia
Answer: B
Q6.
Rani Velu Nachiyar is known for recapturing which region in 1780?
A. Arcot
B. Mysore
C. Sivaganga
D. Madurai
Answer: C
Q7.
Rani Velu Nachiyar formed one of the world’s first:
A. Naval fleets
B. Women’s military battalions
C. Guerrilla intelligence units
D. Diplomatic councils
Answer: B
Q8.
US air strikes near Caracas were widely interpreted as a revival of which doctrine?
A. Truman Doctrine
B. Monroe Doctrine
C. Nixon Doctrine
D. Eisenhower Doctrine
Answer: B
Q9.
India introduced the e-Production Investment Business Visa (e-B-4) mainly for:
A. Tourism
B. Chinese manufacturing-linked investment activities
C. Student exchange
D. IT outsourcing
Answer: B
Q10.
The maximum duration of stay under the e-B-4 visa is up to:
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years
Answer: B
Q11.
India’s Gross NPA ratio declined to approximately:
A. 4%
B. 3%
C. 2.1%
D. 1%
Answer: C
Q12.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code primarily aims to:
A. Control inflation
B. Restore credit discipline and resolve stressed assets
C. Increase subsidies
D. Expand tax base
Answer: B
Q13.
The Arctic is warming at:
A. Same rate as global average
B. Half the global average
C. More than twice the global average
D. Three times the global average
Answer: C
Q14.
India’s Arctic research station is named:
A. Maitri
B. Himadri
C. Bharati
D. Dakshin Gangotri
Answer: B
Q15.
PRAGATI platform enhances:
A. Election transparency
B. Real-time project monitoring and Centre–State coordination
C. Pension reforms
D. Defence procurement
Answer: B
Q16.
The Draft Pesticides Management Bill, 2025 seeks to replace:
A. Fertiliser Act
B. Seeds Act
C. Insecticides Act, 1968
D. Environment Protection Act
Answer: C
Q17.
Census 2027 will be India’s:
A. 14th decennial census
B. 15th decennial census
C. 16th decennial census
D. 17th decennial census
Answer: C
Q18.
Census 2027 will be India’s first:
A. Biometric census
B. Fully digital census
C. AI-operated census
D. Urban-only census
Answer: B
Q19.
India assumed BRICS Chairmanship for the year:
A. 2025
B. 2026
C. 2027
D. 2028
Answer: B
Q20.
DRDO successfully tested which engine for hypersonic capability?
A. Turbojet
B. Ramjet
C. Scramjet
D. Cryogenic engine
Answer: C
Q21.
Scramjet engines enable sustained flight at speeds above:
A. Mach 2
B. Mach 3
C. Mach 4
D. Mach 5
Answer: D
Q22.
Param Shakti supercomputer delivers approximately:
A. 1 Petaflop
B. 2 Petaflops
C. 3.1 Petaflops
D. 5 Petaflops
Answer: C
Q23.
Param Shakti was installed at:
A. IIT Bombay
B. IIT Delhi
C. IIT Madras
D. IISc Bengaluru
Answer: C
Q24.
India objected to China’s infrastructure activities in:
A. Doklam
B. Pangong Tso
C. Shaksgam Valley
D. Galwan Valley
Answer: C
Q25.
The PSLV-C62 mission anomaly occurred in which stage?
A. First stage
B. Second stage
C. Solid-fuel third stage
D. Cryogenic upper stage
Answer: C
Q26.
The Supreme Court suggested adding a Romeo–Juliet clause in:
A. JJ Act
B. POCSO Act
C. IT Act
D. IPC
Answer: B
Q27.
China’s EAST reactor crossed which plasma density threshold?
A. Chandrasekhar Limit
B. Greenwald Limit
C. Tolman Limit
D. Bethe Limit
Answer: B
Q28.
The UN High Seas Treaty is also known as:
A. UNCLOS-II
B. BBNJ Agreement
C. Blue Ocean Pact
D. Marine Governance Accord
Answer: B
Q29.
BBNJ stands for:
A. Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction
B. Blue Basin Navigation Jurisdiction
C. Biological Boundary Navigation Zone
D. Bilateral Biodiversity Joint Network
Answer: A
Q30.
The Australia Group focuses on preventing proliferation of:
A. Nuclear weapons
B. Cyber weapons
C. Chemical and biological weapons
D. Ballistic missiles
Answer: C
Q31.
India joined the Australia Group in:
A. 2015
B. 2016
C. 2017
D. 2018
Answer: D
Q32.
The RBI Integrated Ombudsman Scheme strengthens:
A. Monetary policy
B. Banking grievance redressal
C. Forex reserves
D. Cryptocurrency regulation
Answer: B
Q33.
Under revised carbon rules, 208 industrial units must reduce emission intensity by:
A. 1–2%
B. 2–4%
C. 3–7%
D. 8–10%
Answer: C
Q34.
Diego Garcia is part of which archipelago?
A. Maldives
B. Lakshadweep
C. Chagos
D. Seychelles
Answer: C
Q35.
The UK retains a lease over Diego Garcia for:
A. 50 years
B. 75 years
C. 99 years
D. 120 years
Answer: C
Q36.
The Military Quantum Mission aligns with:
A. National AI Mission
B. National Quantum Mission
C. Digital India
D. Make in India
Answer: B
Q37.
The largest contributor to Delhi winter pollution is:
A. Vehicular emissions
B. Crop burning
C. Secondary particulate matter
D. Construction dust
Answer: C
Q38.
Nearly what proportion of Delhi’s PM2.5 originates outside the city?
A. One-third
B. Half
C. Two-thirds
D. Three-fourths
Answer: C
Q39.
G4 nations include:
A. India, Brazil, Germany, Japan
B. India, USA, UK, France
C. India, Australia, Japan, USA
D. India, Germany, UK, Brazil
Answer: A
Q40.
The G4 proposal suggests adding how many new permanent UNSC seats?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: C
Q41.
India’s foreign exchange reserves reached approximately:
A. $650 billion
B. $680 billion
C. $701.4 billion
D. $750 billion
Answer: C
Q42.
Economic Survey 2025–26 projected GDP growth for FY26 at:
A. 6.8%
B. 7.0%
C. 7.2%
D. 7.4%
Answer: D
Q43.
Private Final Consumption Expenditure rose to what share of GDP?
A. 58%
B. 60%
C. 61.5%
D. 63%
Answer: C
Q44.
India remained the world’s largest remittance recipient at approximately:
A. $120 billion
B. $130 billion
C. $135.4 billion
D. $150 billion
Answer: C
Q45.
Coking coal was declared a Critical and Strategic Mineral under:
A. Coal Act
B. MMDR Act, 1957
C. National Steel Policy
D. Energy Act
Answer: B
Q46.
The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026 mandate how many segregation streams?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Answer: C
Q47.
India’s defence production reached approximately:
A. ₹1 lakh crore
B. ₹1.25 lakh crore
C. ₹1.51 lakh crore
D. ₹2 lakh crore
Answer: C
Q48.
ACASA-India platform provides:
A. Pension advisory
B. Climate adaptation advisory for farmers
C. Loan restructuring
D. Fertiliser subsidy tracking
Answer: B
Q49.
India achieved 50% non-fossil electricity capacity:
A. Behind schedule
B. On schedule
C. Ahead of schedule
D. After COP revision
Answer: C
Q50.
The RBI State Finances Report describes India as being at a:
A. Demographic winter
B. Demographic collapse
C. Demographic inflection point
D. Population decline stage
Answer: C
Q51.
According to RBI State Finances 2025–26 report, India’s median age is approximately:
A. 25 years
B. 27 years
C. 28 years
D. 30 years
Answer: C
Q52.
Ageing states like Kerala and Tamil Nadu face rising fiscal pressure mainly due to:
A. Defence spending
B. Pension expenditure
C. Import bills
D. Corporate tax cuts
Answer: B
Q53.
Pension expenditure accounts for nearly what share of social sector spending in ageing states?
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 30%
D. 40%
Answer: C
Q54.
India’s consolidated fiscal deficit of states rose to approximately:
A. 2.8% of GDP
B. 3.0% of GDP
C. 3.2% of GDP
D. 3.5% of GDP
Answer: C
Q55.
India generates approximately how much e-waste annually?
A. 4 MMT
B. 5 MMT
C. 6.19 MMT
D. 8 MMT
Answer: C
Q56.
India’s e-waste is projected to rise to about how much by 2030?
A. 10 MMT
B. 12 MMT
C. 14 MMT
D. 16 MMT
Answer: C
Q57.
Nearly what percentage of India’s e-waste is handled by the informal sector?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 78%
Answer: D
Q58.
FDI inflows into India surged by approximately what percentage in 2025?
A. 60%
B. 65%
C. 70%
D. 73%
Answer: D
Q59.
FDI inflows reached approximately:
A. $40 billion
B. $45 billion
C. $47 billion
D. $50 billion
Answer: C
Q60.
The surge in FDI inflows was largely driven by:
A. Oil exports
B. China+1 supply chain diversification
C. Tourism revival
D. Cryptocurrency inflows
Answer: B
Q61.
India handled approximately how many cyber incidents in 2025?
A. 10 lakh
B. 15 lakh
C. 20 lakh
D. 30 lakh
Answer: D
Q62.
Cyber Swachhta Kendra focuses on:
A. Data privacy legislation
B. Malware detection and cyber hygiene
C. AI governance
D. Banking fraud audits
Answer: B
Q63.
Under Article 124(4) of the Constitution, a Supreme Court judge can be removed on grounds of:
A. Inefficiency
B. Proven misbehaviour or incapacity
C. Political disagreement
D. Administrative error
Answer: B
Q64.
Section 17A of the Prevention of Corruption Act requires:
A. Bail before trial
B. Prior sanction before investigating public servants
C. Lokpal approval for arrest
D. Special fast-track courts
Answer: B
Q65.
Justice B.V. Nagarathna struck down Section 17A citing violation of:
A. Article 19
B. Article 21
C. Article 14
D. Article 32
Answer: C
Q66.
Section 12(1)(c) of the RTE Act mandates:
A. Free textbooks
B. 25% reservation for EWS in private unaided schools
C. Digital classrooms
D. Teacher recruitment reforms
Answer: B
Q67.
The UN High Seas Treaty rests on how many pillars?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Answer: C
Q68.
One of the pillars of the BBNJ Agreement includes:
A. Maritime military cooperation
B. Marine protected areas
C. Deep-sea mining promotion
D. Oil exploration
Answer: B
Q69.
India’s renewable energy jobs reached approximately:
A. 1 million
B. 1.2 million
C. 1.3 million
D. 1.5 million
Answer: C
Q70.
India’s passport ranking improved to which position in 2026?
A. 75
B. 78
C. 80
D. 82
Answer: C
Q71.
The Responsible Nations Index ranked India at:
A. 12th
B. 14th
C. 16th
D. 18th
Answer: C
Q72.
Nature-negative finance globally stood at approximately:
A. $6 trillion
B. $7 trillion
C. $7.3 trillion
D. $8 trillion
Answer: C
Q73.
Nature-positive investments globally were approximately:
A. $150 billion
B. $180 billion
C. $200 billion
D. $220 billion
Answer: D
Q74.
Annual investment required for Nature-based Solutions by 2030 is estimated at:
A. $500 billion
B. $550 billion
C. $571 billion
D. $600 billion
Answer: C
Q75.
MISHTI scheme primarily focuses on:
A. Coral reef restoration
B. Mangrove restoration
C. Glacier conservation
D. Wetland drainage
Answer: B
Q76.
Amrit Dharohar scheme relates to conservation of:
A. Tiger reserves
B. Ramsar wetlands
C. Mangrove forests
D. River dolphins
Answer: B
Q77.
The G4 proposal suggests expanding the UNSC to approximately how many total members?
A. 21–22
B. 23–24
C. 25–26
D. 28–30
Answer: C
Q78.
The polar vortex shift allowed Arctic air to spill into:
A. South Asia
B. Africa
C. United States
D. Australia
Answer: C
Q79.
Arctic amplification reduces the temperature gradient between:
A. Tropics and equator
B. Poles and mid-latitudes
C. Oceans and land
D. Hemispheres
Answer: B
Q80.
India’s AI strategy emphasizes:
A. Only military AI
B. Large GPU imports
C. Citizen-centric and ethical AI
D. Unregulated AI expansion
Answer: C
Q81.
India’s AI infrastructure investment rollout is approximately:
A. $50 billion
B. $60 billion
C. $70 billion
D. $80 billion
Answer: C
Q82.
Smaller domain-specific AI models handle approximately what percentage of workloads?
A. 70%
B. 80%
C. 90%
D. 95%
Answer: D
Q83.
Param Shakti was built using indigenous servers developed by:
A. ISRO
B. DRDO
C. C-DAC
D. BEL
Answer: C
Q84.
India’s defence exports expanded to:
A. 75 countries
B. 90 countries
C. 100+ countries
D. 120 countries
Answer: C
Q85.
Coking coal is critical for:
A. Solar panels
B. Steel production
C. Cement production
D. Aluminium smelting
Answer: B
Q86.
The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 balances privacy with:
A. Military secrecy
B. Ease of compliance
C. Export control
D. Tariff reform
Answer: B
Q87.
The NPS Vatsalya Scheme aims to expand pension coverage to:
A. Senior citizens
B. Children
C. Informal workers
D. Women entrepreneurs
Answer: B
Q88.
Startup India completed how many years in January 2026?
A. 5 years
B. 8 years
C. 10 years
D. 12 years
Answer: C
Q89.
India’s startup ecosystem valuation crossed approximately:
A. $250 billion
B. $300 billion
C. $350 billion
D. $400 billion
Answer: C
Q90.
India became global leader in IPOs in terms of:
A. Total value
B. Number of IPOs
C. Foreign listings
D. Profit margin
Answer: B
Q91.
Market capitalisation-to-GDP ratio crossed:
A. 110%
B. 120%
C. 130%
D. 140%
Answer: C
Q92.
India’s fish production rose to approximately:
A. 150 lakh tonnes
B. 175 lakh tonnes
C. 190 lakh tonnes
D. 197.75 lakh tonnes
Answer: D
Q93.
The India–EU Free Trade Agreement grants access to approximately what percentage of tariff lines?
A. 90%
B. 93%
C. 95%
D. 97%
Answer: D
Q94.
Article 18 of the Constitution ensures that civilian awards are:
A. Hereditary
B. Transferable
C. Non-titular
D. Monetary only
Answer: C
Q95.
The Commission for Air Quality Management highlighted that secondary PM forms mainly due to:
A. Direct emissions
B. Chemical atmospheric reactions
C. Industrial shutdown
D. Sudden emission spikes
Answer: B
Q96.
Greenwald limit is associated with:
A. Ozone depletion
B. Fusion plasma density
C. Carbon trading
D. Glacier melt
Answer: B
Q97.
India’s forex reserves stood at approximately:
A. $650 billion
B. $680 billion
C. $701.4 billion
D. $750 billion
Answer: C
Q98.
India remained the world’s largest remittance recipient at approximately:
A. $120 billion
B. $130 billion
C. $135.4 billion
D. $150 billion
Answer: C
Q99.
Solid Waste Management Rules 2026 become effective from:
A. January 2026
B. April 1, 2026
C. July 2026
D. October 2026
Answer: B
Q100.
The Environmental Protection Fund Rules, 2026 ensure:
A. Carbon trading
B. Transparent and audited use of pollution penalties
C. Mining liberalisation
D. Land acquisition reform
Answer: B
Q101.
The Draft Pesticides Management Bill, 2025 proposes establishment of which apex body?
A. National Agro Chemical Authority
B. Central Pesticides Board
C. Crop Safety Commission
D. Agricultural Regulatory Tribunal
Answer: B
Q102.
The Draft Pesticides Bill introduces which system to prevent counterfeit pesticides?
A. Manual licensing
B. Fully digital registration and tracking system
C. State-level inspection only
D. Farmer certification mechanism
Answer: B
Q103.
The Bill provides for deemed registration primarily for:
A. Imported pesticides
B. Generic pesticides
C. Organic fertilisers
D. Biofuels
Answer: B
Q104.
The relaxation of afforestation norms waives which requirement for private afforestation on leased forest land?
A. Environmental clearance
B. Compensatory afforestation and Net Present Value payments
C. Forest survey approval
D. Water clearance
Answer: B
Q105.
Census 2027 houselisting operations are scheduled for:
A. 2025
B. 2026
C. 2027
D. 2028
Answer: B
Q106.
India will host which edition of the BRICS Summit during its 2026 chairmanship?
A. 16th
B. 17th
C. 18th
D. 19th
Answer: C
Q107.
An Indian diplomat was appointed Chair of which UN body for 2026–27?
A. UNDP Executive Board
B. UN Security Council Committee
C. UN Advisory Board on Disarmament Matters
D. UNEP Governing Council
Answer: C
Q108.
The Mpemba Effect refers to:
A. Cold water freezing faster than hot water
B. Hot water freezing faster than cold water
C. Plasma cooling effect
D. Ice sublimation process
Answer: B
Q109.
India contributes to fusion research through facilities such as:
A. EAST and ITER
B. ADITYA and SST-1
C. KSTAR and JET
D. DEMO and W7-X
Answer: B
Q110.
Global oceans absorbed a record amount of heat in 2025 estimated at approximately:
A. 15 zettajoules
B. 18 zettajoules
C. 23 zettajoules
D. 30 zettajoules
Answer: C
Q111.
The Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS-1) first module is planned by:
A. 2026
B. 2027
C. 2028
D. 2030
Answer: C
Q112.
India–Japan Strategic Dialogue emphasized cooperation in:
A. Agriculture subsidies
B. Critical minerals and semiconductors
C. Tourism development
D. Oil exploration
Answer: B
Q113.
The Third Global Strategic Pole concept promotes:
A. Bipolar dominance
B. Strategic autonomy and multipolarity
C. NATO expansion
D. Dollarization
Answer: B
Q114.
The Military Quantum Mission includes which application?
A. Thermal power expansion
B. Quantum key distribution
C. Traditional encryption
D. Oil logistics
Answer: B
Q115.
Post-quantum cryptography is important for:
A. Agricultural productivity
B. Cyber resilience
C. Road construction
D. Fisheries
Answer: B
Q116.
The National Environmental Standard Laboratory (NESL) strengthens India’s capability in:
A. Nuclear testing
B. Environmental metrology and air pollution standards
C. Glacier mapping
D. Fisheries certification
Answer: B
Q117.
The Weimar Triangle consists of:
A. France, Germany, Poland
B. Germany, UK, Italy
C. France, Spain, Italy
D. Germany, Netherlands, Belgium
Answer: A
Q118.
The Anti-Coercion Instrument is a trade defence tool of:
A. ASEAN
B. NATO
C. European Union
D. UNCTAD
Answer: C
Q119.
The SHANTI Act, 2025 enables cooperation in:
A. Missile defence
B. Civil nuclear technology
C. Coal gasification
D. Green hydrogen only
Answer: B
Q120.
Under the India–UAE agreement, ADNOC Gas will supply how much LNG annually to HPCL?
A. 0.2 MTPA
B. 0.3 MTPA
C. 0.5 MTPA
D. 1 MTPA
Answer: C
Q121.
The Carbon Credit Trading Scheme brought which sectors under compliance?
A. IT and tourism
B. Petroleum refining, textiles, petrochemicals
C. Banking
D. Education
Answer: B
Q122.
China’s population declined for how many consecutive years by 2025?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Answer: C
Q123.
The Responsible Nations Index assesses countries beyond GDP based on:
A. Military spending
B. Ethical governance and environmental stewardship
C. Trade surplus
D. Oil production
Answer: B
Q124.
Diego Garcia regained attention due to its role as:
A. Fishing hub
B. Joint UK–US military base
C. Tourist island
D. Oil exploration zone
Answer: B
Q125.
The 2019 ICJ advisory opinion declared UK administration of Chagos as:
A. Fully lawful
B. Jointly governed
C. Unlawful
D. Temporary
Answer: C
Q126.
Neo-royalism refers to:
A. Revival of monarchies
B. Concentration of power in personalized leadership
C. Parliamentary supremacy
D. Federal decentralization
Answer: B
Q127.
Neo-feudalism describes rise of:
A. Colonial empires
B. Powerful transnational private actors
C. State-owned enterprises
D. Agricultural reforms
Answer: B
Q128.
India’s AI strategy prioritizes which approach?
A. Large foundation models only
B. Application-led deployment
C. Military-only AI
D. Foreign cloud dependence
Answer: B
Q129.
Approximately what percentage of AI workloads are handled by smaller models?
A. 80%
B. 85%
C. 90%
D. 95%
Answer: D
Q130.
India plans semiconductor fabrication in which node range?
A. 7–14 nm
B. 14–28 nm
C. 28–90 nm
D. 90–180 nm
Answer: C
Q131.
The ACASA-India platform marks how many years of NICRA?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. 20
Answer: C
Q132.
Blue Origin’s TeraWave initiative relates to:
A. Nuclear energy
B. Satellite broadband network
C. Oil pipelines
D. Deep-sea mining
Answer: B
Q133.
The NIDMS enhances coordination in:
A. Election data
B. Counter-IED and counter-terror data
C. Banking audits
D. Agricultural census
Answer: B
Q134.
Section 38 of the RTE Act empowers governments to:
A. Dismiss teachers
B. Frame rules for implementation
C. Collect taxes
D. Approve budgets
Answer: B
Q135.
The Lok Sabha Speaker can constitute an Inquiry Committee even if a similar motion is rejected by:
A. Judiciary
B. Executive
C. Other House of Parliament
D. Election Commission
Answer: C
Q136.
The Henley Passport Index is based on:
A. GDP
B. Defence capability
C. Visa-free travel access
D. Trade volume
Answer: C
Q137.
India achieved 50% non-fossil electricity capacity ahead of schedule under commitments linked to:
A. Kyoto Protocol
B. Paris Agreement
C. WTO rules
D. ASEAN Charter
Answer: B
Q138.
PM Surya Ghar promotes:
A. Wind energy
B. Rooftop solar
C. Biofuel
D. Coal gasification
Answer: B
Q139.
The National Green Hydrogen Mission aims at:
A. Oil substitution only
B. Decarbonisation and green fuel transition
C. Coal expansion
D. Nuclear dominance
Answer: B
Q140.
The UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations align with:
A. Digital India
B. NEP 2020
C. Startup India
D. NITI Aayog reforms
Answer: B
Q141.
France banned social media use for children below:
A. 12 years
B. 13 years
C. 15 years
D. 18 years
Answer: C
Q142.
Karnataka constituted a Gig Workers’ Welfare Board to provide:
A. Direct salary payments
B. Social security benefits
C. Tax exemption
D. Pension only
Answer: B
Q143.
Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026 introduce:
A. Two-stream segregation
B. Four-stream segregation
C. Five-stream segregation
D. No segregation
Answer: B
Q144.
Plastic pollution health impacts are projected to:
A. Stabilize
B. Reduce
C. Double by 2040
D. Eliminate
Answer: C
Q145.
The Ganga–Brahmaputra delta is identified as a hotspot for:
A. Uplift
B. Subsidence
C. Volcanism
D. Desertification
Answer: B
Q146.
Excessive groundwater extraction contributes to:
A. Glacier formation
B. Land subsidence
C. Ozone repair
D. Coral bleaching
Answer: B
Q147.
Economic Survey highlighted which sector as the key growth anchor?
A. Agriculture
B. Manufacturing
C. Services
D. Mining
Answer: C
Q148.
General government debt-to-GDP ratio reduced by approximately how many percentage points since 2020?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7.1
D. 8
Answer: C
Q149.
India’s market capitalisation-to-GDP ratio crossing 130% indicates:
A. Banking crisis
B. Investor confidence and market depth
C. Currency collapse
D. Trade deficit
Answer: B
Q150.
The Mpemba Effect was studied using:
A. Manual experiments only
B. Satellite mapping
C. Supercomputer simulations
D. Drone monitoring
Answer: C
Q151.
The India–Middle East–Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) aims to:
A. Promote military alliance
B. Diversify trade routes and reduce logistics time
C. Replace Suez Canal
D. Establish new currency bloc
Answer: B
Q152.
The Global Economic Prospects report is published by:
A. IMF
B. World Bank
C. OECD
D. WTO
Answer: B
Q153.
World Bank revised India’s FY26 growth forecast to approximately:
A. 6.8%
B. 7.0%
C. 7.2%
D. 7.4%
Answer: C
Q154.
India’s fish production doubled from FY14 to FY25 to reach approximately:
A. 150 lakh tonnes
B. 175 lakh tonnes
C. 190 lakh tonnes
D. 197.75 lakh tonnes
Answer: D
Q155.
India is set to join Pax Silica, a US-led initiative focused on:
A. Oil exports
B. Secure technology supply chains
C. Agricultural trade
D. Space tourism
Answer: B
Q156.
The National Sports Governance Rules, 2026 mandate:
A. Lifetime tenure for officials
B. Women representation and independent election panels
C. Foreign oversight
D. Abolition of federations
Answer: B
Q157.
The Australia Group is primarily an informal export control regime against proliferation of:
A. Nuclear weapons
B. Chemical and biological weapons
C. Ballistic missiles
D. Cyber weapons
Answer: B
Q158.
The Supreme Court judgment in Nabam Rebia (2016) reaffirmed that Governors must act on:
A. Personal discretion
B. Judicial direction
C. Aid and advice of Council of Ministers
D. President’s direction
Answer: C
Q159.
The UN High Seas Treaty became operational after ratification by more than:
A. 50 countries
B. 60 countries
C. 70 countries
D. 80 countries
Answer: D
Q160.
The Renewable Energy and Jobs – Annual Review 2025 highlighted India’s top ranking in:
A. Wind employment
B. Solar PV employment
C. Nuclear employment
D. Coal employment
Answer: B
Q161.
The NPS Vatsalya Scheme promotes:
A. Corporate pensions
B. Early financial literacy and long-term savings for children
C. Pension privatization
D. Retirement age increase
Answer: B
Q162.
Food prices entered deflation for the first time since:
A. 2010
B. 2012
C. 2014
D. 2016
Answer: C
Q163.
The symbolic gifting of a Nobel Peace Prize medal raised debate because Nobel honours are:
A. Transferable legally
B. Non-transferable legally
C. Tradable
D. Auctionable
Answer: B
Q164.
Mission Mausam strengthened India’s:
A. Defence satellites
B. Urban weather monitoring systems
C. Oil reserves
D. Water pipelines
Answer: B
Q165.
The Supreme Court directed mandatory reporting of student suicides by:
A. District collectors
B. Police stations
C. Higher educational institutions
D. Parents
Answer: C
Q166.
India’s defence production reached approximately:
A. ₹1.25 lakh crore
B. ₹1.40 lakh crore
C. ₹1.51 lakh crore
D. ₹1.75 lakh crore
Answer: C
Q167.
The European Union considered invoking its Anti-Coercion Instrument to counter:
A. Military aggression
B. Economic pressure
C. Cyber warfare
D. Climate violations
Answer: B
Q168.
Hope Island controversy relates to proposal for:
A. Nuclear power plant
B. Satellite launch facility
C. Oil refinery
D. Deep-sea mining
Answer: B
Q169.
Under the India–UAE partnership, bilateral trade target by 2032 is over:
A. $150 billion
B. $175 billion
C. $200 billion
D. $250 billion
Answer: C
Q170.
Digital and Data Embassies concept ensures:
A. Currency convertibility
B. Data sovereignty and cyber resilience
C. Free trade
D. Visa-free travel
Answer: B
Q171.
China’s demographic winter is characterized by:
A. High fertility
B. Youth surge
C. Ageing population and low fertility
D. Migration boom
Answer: C
Q172.
Environmental Protection Fund Rules, 2026 emphasize:
A. Carbon trading
B. Transparent audited use of pollution penalties
C. Oil exploration
D. Mining expansion
Answer: B
Q173.
The 99-year lease of Diego Garcia ensures continuity of:
A. Tourism
B. UK–US military operations
C. Fishing rights
D. Oil drilling
Answer: B
Q174.
Neo-royalism in global politics refers to:
A. Return of monarchies
B. Personalised concentration of executive power
C. Federal expansion
D. Parliamentary supremacy
Answer: B
Q175.
The Carney Doctrine proposed at WEF 2026 advocates:
A. Rigid bloc politics
B. Middle-power flexible multilateralism
C. Unilateral dominance
D. Protectionism
Answer: B
Q176.
Pixxel signed agreement with IN-SPACe to build:
A. Nuclear satellite
B. Earth Observation constellation
C. Human space capsule
D. Lunar rover
Answer: B
Q177.
Nature-negative finance globally is nearly how many times larger than nature-positive finance?
A. 10 times
B. 15 times
C. 20 times
D. 30 times
Answer: D
Q178.
The Military Quantum Mission supports integration of quantum technology into:
A. Agriculture
B. Defence architecture
C. Tourism
D. Fisheries
Answer: B
Q179.
The Commission for Air Quality Management found winter pollution intensified mainly due to:
A. Sudden emission spikes
B. Atmospheric stagnation
C. Earthquakes
D. Flooding
Answer: B
Q180.
The G4 proposal addresses under-representation of:
A. Europe
B. Global South
C. NATO
D. OECD
Answer: B
Q181.
The RBI report described India as being at a demographic:
A. Collapse
B. Dividend turning point
C. Winter
D. Plateau
Answer: B
Q182.
India’s working-age population window is considered:
A. Permanent
B. Expanding infinitely
C. Narrow but critical
D. Declining rapidly
Answer: C
Q183.
The circular economy report warned India’s recycling rate is approximately:
A. 20%
B. 15%
C. 12%
D. 10%
Answer: D
Q184.
The Fourth Industrial Revolution Centre in India is located in:
A. Gujarat
B. Maharashtra
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Karnataka
Answer: C
Q185.
ACASA-India platform provides location-specific advisories for:
A. Students
B. Farmers
C. Investors
D. Tourists
Answer: B
Q186.
The Arctic greening phenomenon refers to:
A. Ice thickening
B. Increase in tundra vegetation
C. Coral bleaching
D. Glacier uplift
Answer: B
Q187.
Atlantification refers to:
A. Cooling of Arctic
B. Increased Atlantic water inflow into Arctic
C. NATO expansion
D. Polar ice growth
Answer: B
Q188.
The Greenwald limit relates to:
A. Carbon credits
B. Fusion plasma density threshold
C. Ozone depletion
D. Sea-level rise
Answer: B
Q189.
India’s renewable capacity target achievement strengthened its role in:
A. Coal alliance
B. Climate leadership
C. Oil cartel
D. Military bloc
Answer: B
Q190.
The SWAMIH fund supports:
A. Defence procurement
B. Stalled housing projects
C. Pension reform
D. Nuclear reactors
Answer: B
Q191.
The PNGRB–Germany MoU focuses on cooperation in:
A. Coal mining
B. Hydrogen regulation
C. Oil pipelines
D. Wind turbines
Answer: B
Q192.
The NIRANTAR platform enhances coordination in:
A. Banking audits
B. Environmental governance
C. Defence exports
D. Tourism
Answer: B
Q193.
The Gita Mittal Committee relates to:
A. Judicial reforms
B. Humanitarian relief in Manipur
C. Pension policy
D. Defence modernization
Answer: B
Q194.
India–Russia agreement includes manufacturing of which aircraft in India?
A. Sukhoi-30
B. MiG-29
C. SJ-100 regional aircraft
D. Tejas Mk-II
Answer: C
Q195.
India’s services sector grew by approximately:
A. 7%
B. 8%
C. 9.1%
D. 10%
Answer: C
Q196.
General government debt sustainability improved by reducing debt-to-GDP by about:
A. 5%
B. 6%
C. 7.1%
D. 8%
Answer: C
Q197.
The Mpemba Effect was explained using:
A. Drone experiments
B. Satellite data
C. Supercomputer simulations
D. Field surveys
Answer: C
Q198.
The UN Advisory Board on Disarmament Matters Chairmanship (2026–27) was held by:
A. USA diplomat
B. UK diplomat
C. Indian diplomat
D. French diplomat
Answer: C
Q199.
Section 12(1)(c) of RTE Act mandates reservation for:
A. SC/ST only
B. Girl child only
C. EWS and disadvantaged children
D. Minority institutions
Answer: C
Q200.
India’s January 2026 developments reflected convergence of:
A. Only economic reforms
B. Only defence modernisation
C. Governance reform, strategic ambition, climate leadership and technology advancement
D. Agricultural subsidies only
Answer: C
Q201.
The processing time for India’s e-B-4 visa is approximately:
A. 15–20 days
B. 30–35 days
C. 45–50 days
D. 60–70 days
Answer: C
Q202.
The e-B-4 visa allows entry specifically for:
A. General employment
B. Activity-specific manufacturing operations
C. Permanent settlement
D. Tourism and trade fairs
Answer: B
Q203.
Under the Draft Pesticides Management Bill, poisoning surveillance is introduced to strengthen:
A. Trade exports
B. Public health monitoring
C. Fertiliser subsidy
D. Import control
Answer: B
Q204.
The Central Pesticides Board proposed under the Bill aims to:
A. Promote exports
B. Strengthen scientific regulatory oversight
C. Control seed prices
D. Expand organic farming
Answer: B
Q205.
Under afforestation relaxation norms, Assisted Natural Regeneration is now recognized as:
A. Mining activity
B. Forestry activity
C. Commercial land use
D. Infrastructure project
Answer: B
Q206.
The Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025 operationalize which Act?
A. IT Act 2000
B. Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023
C. Aadhaar Act
D. RTI Act
Answer: B
Q207.
The Lok Sabha Speaker’s authority to constitute an Inquiry Committee reinforces:
A. Executive supremacy
B. Bicameral independence
C. Judicial review
D. Presidential control
Answer: B
Q208.
The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 lays down procedure for removal of judges under:
A. Article 14
B. Article 32
C. Articles 124(4) and 218
D. Article 356
Answer: C
Q209.
The NITI–TERI circular economy report highlighted low recovery of critical minerals such as:
A. Iron and coal
B. Lithium, cobalt and nickel
C. Gold and silver
D. Copper and zinc
Answer: B
Q210.
India’s recycling rate for e-waste is approximately:
A. 15%
B. 12%
C. 10%
D. 8%
Answer: C
Q211.
The term “weaponisation of economic tools” refers to use of:
A. Carbon credits
B. Sanctions and tariffs for strategic pressure
C. Digital currencies
D. Military bases
Answer: B
Q212.
The “Donroe Doctrine” is associated with:
A. Climate diplomacy
B. Unilateral regional dominance approach
C. Renewable cooperation
D. Arctic governance
Answer: B
Q213.
The Arctic Council serves primarily as a platform for:
A. Military coordination
B. Climate and regional governance cooperation
C. Oil cartel management
D. Missile defence
Answer: B
Q214.
Secondary particulate matter is formed primarily through:
A. Direct dust emissions
B. Chemical reactions in atmosphere
C. Forest fires only
D. Industrial accidents
Answer: B
Q215.
The Greenhouse Gas Emission Intensity Target Amendment Rules apply penalties for:
A. Overproduction
B. Non-compliance with reduction targets
C. Export surplus
D. Land acquisition
Answer: B
Q216.
The Responsible Nations Index evaluates countries beyond GDP based on:
A. Military capability
B. Ethical governance and global responsibility
C. Oil reserves
D. Population size
Answer: B
Q217.
The ACASA-India digital climate platform marks completion of how many years of NICRA?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. 20
Answer: C
Q218.
The RBI State Finances Report warns youthful states risk a “demographic disaster” if:
A. Population declines
B. Education and skilling lag behind growth
C. Immigration increases
D. Urbanization slows
Answer: B
Q219.
The UNEP State of Finance for Nature report highlighted harmful finance at approximately:
A. $6 trillion
B. $7.3 trillion
C. $8 trillion
D. $9 trillion
Answer: B
Q220.
India’s January 2026 policy landscape reflects convergence of governance reform, technological advancement, climate leadership, and:
A. Agricultural isolation
B. Strategic autonomy
C. Monetary tightening
D. Trade protectionism
Answer: B
Q221.
India achieved a milestone in glaucoma treatment using which advanced technique?
A. Retinal Laser Mapping
B. 3D Flex Aqueous Angiography with iStent
C. Corneal Ablation
D. Optic Nerve Stimulation
Answer: B
Q222.
The glaucoma technique enables real-time visualization of:
A. Retina thickness
B. Aqueous humour drainage pathways
C. Corneal nerves
D. Blood vessels only
Answer: B
Q223.
The combined 3D imaging and iStent procedure is part of:
A. Robotic Surgery
B. MIGS
C. LASIK
D. Cataract Phacoemulsification
Answer: B
Q224.
Bulgaria became the 21st member of the Eurozone after adopting:
A. Dollar
B. Pound
C. Euro
D. Lira
Answer: C
Q225.
Sofia is the capital of:
A. Romania
B. Bulgaria
C. Serbia
D. Hungary
Answer: B
Q226.
Rani Velu Nachiyar recaptured which territory from the British in 1780?
A. Mysore
B. Sivaganga
C. Arcot
D. Madurai
Answer: B
Q227.
The Udaiyaal Battalion formed by Rani Velu Nachiyar was:
A. Naval force
B. Artillery unit
C. All-women military unit
D. Intelligence unit
Answer: C
Q228.
US strikes near Caracas were seen as revival of which doctrine?
A. Truman Doctrine
B. Monroe Doctrine
C. Nixon Doctrine
D. Eisenhower Doctrine
Answer: B
Q229.
India’s e-B-4 visa is primarily designed for:
A. Tourism
B. Manufacturing-linked business activities
C. Permanent employment
D. Student exchange
Answer: B
Q230.
Maximum stay under the e-B-4 visa is:
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years
Answer: B
Q231.
India’s Gross NPA ratio declined to approximately:
A. 4%
B. 3%
C. 2.1%
D. 1%
Answer: C
Q232.
The Arctic is warming at:
A. Equal global rate
B. Half global rate
C. More than twice global rate
D. Three times global rate
Answer: C
Q233.
India’s Arctic research station is named:
A. Maitri
B. Himadri
C. Bharati
D. Dakshin Gangotri
Answer: B